Friday 7 December 2012

Debt collections

Debt collections
Debt collections is a key focus area for Intellicom. We work with various lending institutions, debt buyers and premier collection agencies in the US to service the consumer debt collections market. We recover debt in various stages of delinquency including 1st Party, Pre-Charge off, Primary, Mid-Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, Quaternary & Quints and work on products ranging from Bankcards, Retail Charge Cards, Signature and Personal Cards to Lines of Credit, Auto Loans and Telecom.

Intellicom’s debt collection operations have already figured in top debt collection rankings published by some clients. Our partnerships with various leading collection agencies have given us the opportunity to offer the best collection practices in the US worked out of India thus providing a mix of proven processes, scalability and efficiency.

Our services include:
  • Pre and post-charge-off collections
  • Early fraud identification
  • Credit card activation
  • Property recovery
  • Skip-tracing
  • Disaster prevention and recovery
  • Pre-litigation
  • Dormant judgment
  • Pending bankruptcy
  • Small balance
  • Distressed portfolio
  • Early-out collections

Tuesday 30 October 2012

Collection Agencies Act R.S.O. 1990, CHAPTER C.14 CANADA

Definitions

1. (1) In this Act,

collection agency” means a person other than a collector who obtains or arranges for payment of money owing to another person, or who holds out to the public as providing such a service or any person who sells or offers to sell forms or letters represented to be a collection system or scheme; (“agence de recouvrement”)

“collector” means a person employed, appointed or authorized by a collection agency to collect debts for the agency or to deal with or trace debtors for the agency; (“agent de recouvrement”)

“Director” means the Director under the Ministry of Consumer and Business Services Act; (“directeur”)

“investigator” means an investigator appointed under subsection 15 (1); (“enquêteur”)

“Minister” means the Minister of Consumer and Business Services; (“ministre”)

“Ministry” means the Ministry of Consumer and Business Services; (“ministère”)

“prescribed” means prescribed by this Act or the regulations; (“prescrit”)

“registered” means registered under this Act, and “registration” has a corresponding meaning; (“inscrit”, “inscription”)

“registrant” means a collection agency or a collector that is registered; (“personne inscrite”)

“Registrar” means the Registrar of Collection Agencies; (“registrateur”)

“regulations” means the regulations made under this Act; (“règlements”)

“Tribunal” means the Licence Appeal Tribunal. (“Tribunal”) R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 1 (1); 1999, c. 12, Sched. G, s. 17 (1); 2000, c. 2, s. 1; 2000, c. 26, Sched. B, s. 6; 2001, c. 9, Sched. D, s. 13; 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (2, 3); 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (1, 2).

Note: Despite the amendments made by the Statutes of Ontario, 2000, chapter 2, section 1, subsection (1), as it read immediately before April 12, 2000, continues to apply to individuals and corporations with respect to the time period before April 12, 2000. See: 2000, c. 2, s. 5.

Deemed control

(2) For the purposes of this Act, a corporation shall be deemed to be controlled by another person or corporation or by two or more corporations if,

(a) equity shares of the first-mentioned corporation carrying more than 50 per cent of the votes for the election of directors are held, otherwise than by way of security only, by or for the benefit of such other person or corporation or by or for the benefit of such other corporations; and

(b) the votes carried by such securities are sufficient, if exercised, to elect a majority of the board of directors of the first-mentioned corporation. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 1 (2).

Application of Act

2. This Act does not apply,

(a) to a barrister or solicitor in the regular practice of his or her profession or to his or her employees;

(b) to an insurer or agent licensed under the Insurance Act or broker registered under the Registered Insurance Brokers Act, to the extent of the business authorized by such licence or registration, or to the employees of the insurer, agent or broker;

(c) to an assignee, custodian, liquidator, receiver, trustee or other person licensed or acting under the Bankruptcy Act (Canada), the Corporations Act, the Business Corporations Act, the Courts of Justice Act or the Winding-up Act (Canada) or a person acting under the order of any court;

Note: On a day to be named by proclamation of the Lieutenant Governor, clause (c) is repealed and the following substituted:

(c) to an assignee, custodian, liquidator, receiver, trustee or other person licensed or acting under the Bankruptcy Act (Canada), the Corporations Act, the Business Corporations Act, the Courts of Justice Act, the Not-for-Profit Corporations Act, 2010 or the Winding-up Act (Canada) or a person acting under the order of any court;

See: 2010, c. 15, ss. 218 (1), 249.

(d) to a broker or salesperson registered under the Real Estate and Business Brokers Act, 2002, or an official or other employee of such a broker to the extent of the business authorized by the registration;

(e) to a bank listed in Schedule I or II to the Bank Act (Canada), a loan corporation or trust corporation registered under the Loan and Trust Corporations Act, or an employee thereof in the regular course of his or her employment;

(f) to an isolated collection made by a person whose usual business is not collecting debts for other persons; or

(g) to a credit union incorporated under the Credit Unions and Caisses Populaires Act or any employee thereof acting in the regular course of his or her employment. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 2; 1999, c. 12, Sched. F, s. 10; 2002, c. 8, Sched. I, s. 5; 2002, c. 30, Sched. E, s. 2 (1).

Registrar

3. (1) The Deputy Minister shall appoint a person as the Registrar of Collection Agencies. 1998, c. 18, Sched. E, s. 50.

Duties of Registrar

(2) The Registrar may exercise the powers and shall perform the duties conferred or imposed upon him or her by or under this Act. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 3 (2); 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (3).

Registration

4. (1) No person shall carry on the business of a collection agency or act as a collector unless the person is registered by the Registrar under this Act. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 4 (1).

Name and place of business

(2) A registered collection agency shall not carry on business in a name other than the name in which it is registered or invite the public to deal at a place other than that authorized by the registration. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 4 (2).

Use of name to collect debts

5. No creditor shall deal with the debtor for payment of the debt except under the name in which the debt is lawfully owing or through a registered collection agency. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 5.

Registration

6. (1) An applicant is entitled to registration or renewal of registration by the Registrar except where,

(a) having regard to the applicant’s financial position, the applicant cannot reasonably be expected to be financially responsible in the conduct of business; or

(b) the past conduct of the applicant affords reasonable grounds for belief that the applicant will not carry on business in accordance with law and with integrity and honesty; or

(c) the applicant is a corporation and,

(i) having regard to its financial position, it cannot reasonably be expected to be financially responsible in the conduct of its business, or

(ii) the past conduct of its officers or directors affords reasonable grounds for belief that its business will not be carried on in accordance with law and with integrity and honesty; or

(d) the applicant is carrying on activities that are, or will be, if the applicant is registered, in contravention of this Act or the regulations.

(e) Repealed: 2000, c. 2, s. 2.

R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 6 (1); 2000, c. 2, s. 2.

Note: Despite the repeal made by the Statutes of Ontario, 2000, chapter 2, section 2, clause (e), as it is read immediately before April 12, 2000, continues to apply to individuals and corporations with respect to the time period before April 12, 2000. See: 2000, c. 2, s. 5.

Conditions of registration

(2) A registration is subject to such terms and conditions to give effect to the purposes of this Act as are consented to by the applicant, imposed by the Tribunal or prescribed by the regulations. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 6 (2).

Refusal to register

7. (1) Subject to section 8, the Registrar may refuse to register an applicant where in the Registrar’s opinion the applicant is disentitled to registration under section 6. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 7 (1).

Refusal to renew, suspend or revoke

(2) Subject to section 8, the Registrar may refuse to renew or may suspend or revoke a registration for any reason that would disentitle the registrant to registration under section 6 if the registrant were an applicant, or where the registrant is in breach of a term or condition of the registration. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 7 (2).

Notice of proposal to refuse or revoke

8. (1) Where the Registrar proposes to refuse to grant or renew a registration or proposes to suspend or revoke a registration, the registrar shall serve notice of the proposal, together with written reasons therefor, on the applicant or registrant. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 8 (1).

Notice requiring hearing

(2) A notice under subsection (1) shall state that the applicant or registrant is entitled to a hearing by the Tribunal if the applicant or registrant mails or delivers, within fifteen days after service of the notice under subsection (1), notice in writing requiring a hearing to the Registrar and the Tribunal, and the applicant or registrant may require such a hearing. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 8 (2).

Powers of Registrar where no hearing

(3) Where an applicant or registrant does not require a hearing by the Tribunal in accordance with subsection (2), the Registrar may carry out the proposal stated in the notice under subsection (1). R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 8 (3).

Powers of Tribunal where hearing

(4) Where an applicant or registrant requires a hearing by the Tribunal in accordance with subsection (2), the Tribunal shall appoint a time for and hold the hearing and, on the application of the Registrar at the hearing, may by order direct the Registrar to carry out the proposal or refrain from carrying it out and to take such action as the Tribunal considers the Registrar ought to take in accordance with this Act and the regulations, and for such purposes the Tribunal may substitute its opinion for that of the Registrar. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 8 (4).

Conditions of order

(5) The Tribunal may attach such terms and conditions to its order or to the registration as it considers proper to give effect to the purposes of this Act. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 8 (5).

Parties

(6) The Registrar, the applicant or registrant who has required the hearing and such other persons as the Tribunal may specify are parties to proceedings before the Tribunal under this section. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 8 (6).

Voluntary cancellation

(7) The Registrar may cancel a registration upon the request in writing of the registrant and this section does not apply to the cancellation. 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (4).

Continuation of registration pending renewal

(8) Where, within the time prescribed therefor or, if no time is prescribed, before expiry of the registration, a registrant has applied for its renewal and paid the required fee, the registration shall be deemed to continue,

(a) until the renewal is granted; or

(b) where the registrant is served with notice that the Registrar proposes to refuse to grant the renewal, until the time for giving notice requiring a hearing has expired and, where a hearing is required, until the Tribunal has made its order. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 8 (8); 1998, c. 18, Sched. E, s. 51.

Appeal
(9) Even if a registrant appeals an order of the Tribunal under section 11 of the Licence Appeal Tribunal Act, 1999, the order takes effect immediately but the Tribunal may grant a stay until the disposition of the appeal. 1999, c. 12, Sched. G, s. 17 (2).

Further applications

9. A further application for registration may be made upon new or other evidence or where it is clear that material circumstances have changed. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 9.

10. Repealed: 2000, c. 2, s. 3.

Note: Despite the repeal made by the Statutes of Ontario, 2000, chapter 2, section 3, section 10, as it read immediately before April 12, 2000, continues to apply to individuals and corporations with respect to the time period before April 12, 2000. See: 2000, c. 2, s. 5.



Place of incorporation

11. No corporation shall carry on business in Ontario as a collection agency if it is not incorporated by or under an Act of Ontario, Canada or another province or a territory of Canada. 2000, c. 2, s. 4.

Note: Despite the re-enactment made by the Statutes of Ontario, 2000, chapter 2, section 4, section 11, as it read immediately before April 12, 2000, continues to apply to individuals and corporations with respect to the time period before April 12, 2000. See: 2000, c. 2, s. 5.



Complaints, Inspections and Investigations



Complaints

12. (1) Where the Registrar receives a complaint in respect of a collection agency and so requests in writing, the collection agency shall furnish the Registrar with such information respecting the matter complained of as the Registrar requires. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 12 (1).

Idem

(2) The request under subsection (1) shall indicate the nature of the inquiry involved. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 12 (2).

(3) Repealed: 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (5).

Inspection

13. (1) The Registrar or any person designated in writing by the Registrar may conduct an inspection and may, as part of the inspection, enter and inspect at any reasonable time the business premises of a registrant, other than any part of the premises used as a dwelling, for the purpose of,

(a) ensuring compliance with this Act and the regulations;

(b) dealing with a complaint under section 12; or

(c) ensuring the registrant remains entitled to be registered. 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (6).

Powers on inspection

(2) While carrying out an inspection, an inspector,

(a) is entitled to free access to all money, valuables, documents and records of the person being inspected that are relevant to the inspection;

(b) may use any data storage, processing or retrieval device or system used in carrying on business in order to produce information that is relevant to the inspection and that is in any form; and

(c) may, upon giving a receipt for them, remove for examination and may copy anything relevant to the inspection, including any data storage disk or other retrieval device in order to produce information, but shall promptly return the thing to the person being inspected. 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (6).

Identification

(3) An inspector shall produce, on request, evidence of the authority to carry out an inspection. 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (6).

No obstruction

(4) No person shall obstruct an inspector conducting an inspection or withhold from the inspector or conceal, alter or destroy any money, valuables, documents or records that are relevant to the inspection. 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (6).

No use of force

(5) An inspector shall not use force to enter and inspect premises under this section. 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (6).

Assistance

(6) An inspector may, in the course of an inspection, require a person to produce a document or record and to provide whatever assistance is reasonably necessary, including using any data storage, processing or retrieval device or system to produce information that is relevant to the inspection and that is in any form, and the person shall produce the document or record or provide the assistance. 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (6).

Admissibility of copies

(7) A copy of a document or record certified by an inspector to be a true copy of the original is admissible in evidence to the same extent as the original and has the same evidentiary value. 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (6).

14. Repealed: 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (6).

Appointment of investigators

15. (1) The Director may appoint persons to be investigators for the purposes of conducting investigations. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (7).

Certificate of appointment

(2) The Director shall issue to every investigator a certificate of appointment bearing his or her signature or a facsimile of the signature. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (7).

Production of certificate of appointment

(3) Every investigator who is conducting an investigation, including under section 16, shall, upon request, produce the certificate of appointment as an investigator. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (7).

Search warrant

16. (1) Upon application made without notice by an investigator, a justice of the peace may issue a warrant, if he or she is satisfied on information under oath that there is reasonable ground for believing that,

(a) a person has contravened or is contravening this Act or the regulations or has committed an offence under the law of any jurisdiction that is relevant to the person’s fitness for registration under this Act; and

(b) there is,

(i) in any building, dwelling, receptacle or place anything relating to the contravention of this Act or the regulations or to the person’s fitness for registration, or

(ii) information or evidence relating to the contravention of this Act or the regulations or the person’s fitness for registration that may be obtained through the use of an investigative technique or procedure or the doing of anything described in the warrant. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Powers under warrant

(2) Subject to any conditions contained in it, a warrant obtained under subsection (1) authorizes an investigator,

(a) to enter or access the building, dwelling, receptacle or place specified in the warrant and examine and seize anything described in the warrant;

(b) to use any data storage, processing or retrieval device or system used in carrying on business in order to produce information or evidence described in the warrant, in any form;

(c) to exercise any of the powers specified in subsection (10); and

(d) to use any investigative technique or procedure or do anything described in the warrant. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Entry of dwelling

(3) Despite subsection (2), an investigator shall not exercise the power under a warrant to enter a place, or part of a place, used as a dwelling, unless,

(a) the justice of the peace is informed that the warrant is being sought to authorize entry into a dwelling; and

(b) the justice of the peace authorizes the entry into the dwelling. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Conditions on warrant

(4) A warrant obtained under subsection (1) shall contain such conditions as the justice of the peace considers advisable to ensure that any search authorized by the warrant is reasonable in the circumstances. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Expert help

(5) The warrant may authorize persons who have special, expert or professional knowledge and other persons as necessary to accompany and assist the investigator in respect of the execution of the warrant. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Time of execution

(6) An entry or access under a warrant issued under this section shall be made between 6 a.m. and 9 p.m., unless the warrant specifies otherwise. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Expiry of warrant

(7) A warrant issued under this section shall name a date of expiry, which shall be no later than 30 days after the warrant is issued, but a justice of the peace may extend the date of expiry for an additional period of no more than 30 days, upon application without notice by an investigator. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Use of force

(8) An investigator may call upon police officers for assistance in executing the warrant and the investigator may use whatever force is reasonably necessary to execute the warrant. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Obstruction

(9) No person shall obstruct an investigator executing a warrant under this section or withhold from him or her or conceal, alter or destroy anything relevant to the investigation being conducted pursuant to the warrant. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Assistance

(10) An investigator may, in the course of executing a warrant, require a person to produce the evidence or information described in the warrant and to provide whatever assistance is reasonably necessary, including using any data storage, processing or retrieval device or system to produce, in any form, the evidence or information described in the warrant and the person shall produce the evidence or information or provide the assistance. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Return of seized items

(11) An investigator who seizes any thing under this section or section 16.1 may make a copy of it and shall return it within a reasonable time. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Admissibility

(12) A copy of a document or record certified by an investigator as being a true copy of the original is admissible in evidence to the same extent as the original and has the same evidentiary value. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Seizure of things not specified

16.1 An investigator who is lawfully present in a place pursuant to a warrant or otherwise in the execution of his or her duties may, without a warrant, seize anything in plain view that the investigator believes on reasonable grounds will afford evidence relating to a contravention of this Act or the regulations. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Searches in exigent circumstances

16.2 (1) An investigator may exercise any of the powers described in subsection 16 (2) without a warrant if the conditions for obtaining the warrant exist but by reason of exigent circumstances it would be impracticable to obtain the warrant. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Dwellings

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to a building or part of a building that is being used as a dwelling. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Use of force

(3) The investigator may, in executing any authority given by this section, call upon police officers for assistance and use whatever force is reasonably necessary. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

Applicability of s. 16

(4) Subsections 16 (5), (9), (10), (11) and (12) apply with necessary modifications to a search under this section. 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (8).

General



Confidentiality

17. (1) A person who obtains information in the course of exercising a power or carrying out a duty related to the administration of this Act or the regulations shall preserve secrecy with respect to the information and shall not communicate the information to any person except,

(a) as may be required in connection with a proceeding under this Act or in connection with the administration of this Act or the regulations;

(b) to a ministry, department or agency of a government engaged in the administration of legislation similar to this Act or legislation that protects consumers or to any other entity to which the administration of legislation similar to this Act or legislation that protects consumers has been assigned;

(b.1) as authorized under the Regulatory Modernization Act, 2007;

(c) to an entity or organization prescribed by the regulations, if the purpose of the communication is consumer or debtor protection;

(d) to a law enforcement agency;

(e) to his, her or its counsel; or

(f) with the consent of the person to whom the information relates. 2004, c. 19, s. 6 (1); 2007, c. 4, s. 25.

Testimony

(2) Except in a proceeding under this Act, no person shall be required to give testimony in a civil proceeding with regard to information obtained in the course of exercising a power or carrying out a duty related to the administration of this Act or the regulations. 2004, c. 19, s. 6 (1).

18. Repealed: 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (10).

Order to refrain from dealing with assets

19. (1) Where,

(a) a search warrant has been issued under this Act; or

(b) criminal proceedings or proceedings in relation to a contravention of any Act or regulation are about to be or have been instituted against a person that are connected with or arise out of the business in respect of which such person is registered,

the Director, if he or she believes it advisable for the protection of clients or customers of the person referred to in clause (a) or (b), may in writing or by telegram direct any person having on deposit or under control or for safekeeping any assets or trust funds of the person referred to in clause (a) or (b) to hold such assets or trust funds or direct the person referred to in clause (a) or (b) to refrain from withdrawing any such assets or trust funds from any person having any of them on deposit or under control or for safekeeping or to hold such assets or any trust funds of clients, customers or others in the person’s possession or control in trust for any interim receiver, custodian, trustee, receiver or liquidator appointed under the Bankruptcy Act (Canada), the Courts of Justice Act, the Corporations Act, the Business Corporations Act or the Winding-up Act (Canada), or until the Director revokes or the Tribunal cancels such direction or consents to the release of any particular assets or trust funds from the direction but, in the case of a bank, loan or trust corporation, the direction only applies to the office, branches or agencies thereof named in the direction. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 19 (1); 2006, c. 34, s. 6 (11).

Note: On a day to be named by proclamation of the Lieutenant Governor, subsection (1) is amended by striking out “the Bankruptcy Act (Canada), the Courts of Justice Act, the Corporations Act, the Business Corporations Act or the Winding-up Act (Canada)” in the portion after clause (b) and substituting “the Bankruptcy Act (Canada), the Courts of Justice Act, the Corporations Act, the Business Corporations Act, the Not-for-Profit Corporations Act, 2010 or the Winding-up Act (Canada)”. See: 2010, c. 15, ss. 218 (2), 249.



Bond in lieu

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply where the person referred to in clause (1) (a) or (b) files with the Director,

(a) a personal bond accompanied by collateral security;

(b) a bond of an insurer licensed under the Insurance Act to write surety and fidelity insurance;

(c) a bond of a guarantor, other than an insurer referred to in clause (b), accompanied by collateral security,

in such form, terms and amount as the Director determines. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 19 (2); 1997, c. 19, s. 29.

Application for direction

(3) Any person in receipt of a direction given under subsection (1), if in doubt as to the application of the direction to any assets or trust funds, or in case of a claim being made thereto by a person not named in the direction, may apply to a judge of the Superior Court of Justice who may direct the disposition of such assets or trust funds and may make such order as to costs as seems just. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 19 (3); 2001, c. 9, Sched. D, s. 14.

Notice to land registrar

(4) In any of the circumstances mentioned in clause (1) (a) or (b), the Director may in writing or by telegram notify any land registrar that proceedings are being or are about to be taken that may affect land belonging to the person referred to in the notice, and the notice shall be registered against the lands mentioned therein and has the same effect as the registration of a certificate of pending litigation except that the Director may in writing revoke or modify the notice. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 19 (4).

Cancellation of direction or registration

(5) Any person referred to in clause (1) (a) or (b) in respect of whom a direction has been given by the Director under subsection (1) or any person having an interest in land in respect of which a notice has been registered under subsection (4), may at any time apply to the Tribunal for cancellation in whole or in part of the direction or registration, and the Tribunal shall dispose of the application after a hearing and may, if it finds that such a direction or registration is not required in whole or in part for the protection of clients or customers of the applicant or of other persons interested in the land or that the interests of other persons are unduly prejudiced thereby, cancel the direction or registration in whole or in part, and the applicant, the Director and such other persons as the Tribunal may specify are parties to the proceedings before the Tribunal. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 19 (5).

Court application

(6) The Director may, where he or she has given a direction under subsection (1) or a notice under subsection (4), apply to a judge of the Superior Court of Justice who may give directions or make an order as to the disposition of assets, trust funds or land affected by the direction or notice and as to costs. 1994, c. 27, s. 76 (1); 2001, c. 9, Sched. D, s. 14.

Same

(7) An application by the Director for directions under this section may be made without notice to any other person or party. 1994, c. 27, s. 76 (1).

Notice of changes

20. (1) Every collection agency shall, within five days after the event, notify the Registrar in writing of,

(a) any change in its address for service;

(b) any change in the officers in the case of a corporation or of the members in the case of a partnership;

(c) any commencement or termination of employment of a collector. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 20 (1).

Idem

(2) Every collector shall, within five days after the event, notify the Registrar in writing of,

(a) any change in his or her address for service; and

(b) any commencement or termination of his or her employment. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 20 (2).

Idem

(3) The Registrar shall be deemed to be notified under subsections (1) and (2) on the date on which he or she is actually notified or, where the notification is by mail, on the date of mailing. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 20 (3).

Furnishing material to Registrar

21. (1) The Registrar may at any time require a collection agency to provide him or her with copies of any letters, forms, form letters, notices, pamphlets, brochures, advertisements, contracts, agreements or other similar materials used or proposed to be used by the collection agency in the course of conducting its business. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 21 (1).

False advertising

(2) Where the Registrar believes on reasonable and probable grounds that any of the material referred to in subsection (1) is harsh, false, misleading or deceptive, the Registrar may alter, amend, restrict or prohibit the use of such material, and section 8 applies with necessary modifications to the order in the same manner as to a proposal by the Registrar to refuse registration and the order of the Registrar shall take effect immediately, but the Tribunal may grant a stay until the Registrar’s order becomes final. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 21 (2).

Financial statements

(3) Every collection agency shall, when required by the Registrar, file a financial statement showing the matters specified by the Registrar and signed by the proprietor or officer of the collection agency and certified by a person licensed under the Public Accounting Act, 2004. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 21 (3); 2004, c. 8, s. 46; 2011, c. 1, Sched. 2, s. 2.

Statement confidential

(4) The information contained in a financial statement filed under subsection (3) is confidential and no person shall otherwise than in the ordinary course of his or her duties communicate any such information or allow access to or inspection of the financial statement. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 21 (4).

Practices prohibited

22. No collection agency or collector shall,

(a) collect or attempt to collect for a person for whom it acts any money in addition to the amount owing by the debtor;

(b) communicate or attempt to communicate with a person for the purpose of collecting, negotiating or demanding payment of a debt by a means that enables the charges or costs of the communication to be payable by that person;

(c) receive or make an agreement for the additional payment of any money by a debtor of a creditor for whom the collection agency acts, either on its own account or for the creditor and whether as a charge, cost, expense or otherwise, in consideration for any forbearance, favour, indulgence, intercession or other conduct by the collection agency;

(d) deal with a debtor in a name other than that authorized by the registration; or

(e) engage in any prohibited practice or employ any prohibited method in the collection of debts. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 22; 2002, c. 18, Sched. E, s. 3 (1).

No waiver of rights

22.1 Any waiver or release of any right, benefit or protection provided by this Act or the regulations is void. 2002, c. 18, Sched. E, s. 3 (2).

Notice as to money collected

23. Every collector shall immediately notify his or her employer when any money is collected by him or her in the course of employment. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 23.

Use of unregistered collection agency

24. (1) No person shall knowingly engage or use the services of a collection agency that is not registered under this Act. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 24 (1).

Employment of unregistered collectors

(2) No collection agency shall employ a collector or appoint or authorize a collector to act on its behalf unless the collector is registered under this Act. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 24 (2).

False advertising

25. Where the Registrar believes on reasonable and probable grounds that a collection agency is making false, misleading or deceptive statements in any advertisement, circular, pamphlet or similar material, the Registrar may order the immediate cessation of the use of such material, and section 8 applies with necessary modifications to the order in the same manner as to a proposal by the Registrar to refuse registration and the order of the Registrar shall take effect immediately, but the Tribunal may grant a stay until the Registrar’s order becomes final. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 25.

Service

26. (1) Any notice or order required to be given or served under this Act or the regulations is sufficiently given or served if delivered personally or sent by registered mail addressed to the person to whom delivery or service is required to be made at the latest address for service appearing on the records of the Ministry. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 26 (1).

When service deemed made

(2) Where service is made by registered mail, the service shall be deemed to be made on the third day after the day of mailing unless the person on whom service is being made establishes that the person did not, acting in good faith, through absence, accident, illness or other cause beyond the person’s control receive the notice or order until a later date. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 26 (2).

Exception

(3) Despite subsections (1) and (2), the Tribunal may order any other method of service in respect of any matter before the Tribunal. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 26 (3).

Restraining orders

27. (1) Where it appears to the Director that any person does not comply with this Act, the regulations or an order made under this Act, despite the imposition of any penalty in respect of such non-compliance and in addition to any other rights the person may have, the Director may apply to a judge of the Superior Court of Justice for an order directing such person to comply with such provision, and upon the application the judge may make such order or such other order as the judge thinks fit. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 27 (1); 2001, c. 9, Sched. D, s. 14.

Appeal

(2) An appeal lies to the Divisional Court from an order made under subsection (1). R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 27 (2).

Offences

28. (1) Every person who, knowingly,

(a) furnishes false information in any application under this Act or in any statement or return required to be furnished under this Act or the regulations;

(b) fails to comply with any order, direction or other requirement made under this Act; or

(c) contravenes this Act or the regulations,

and every director or officer of a corporation who knowingly concurs in such furnishing, failure or contravention is guilty of an offence and on conviction is liable to a fine of not more than $50,000 or to imprisonment for a term of not more than two years less one day, or to both. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 28 (1); 2004, c. 19, s. 6 (2).

Corporations

(2) Where a corporation is convicted of an offence under subsection (1), the maximum penalty that may be imposed upon the corporation is $250,000 and not as provided therein. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 28 (2); 2004, c. 19, s. 6 (3).

Order for compensation, restitution

(3) If a person is convicted of an offence under this Act, the court making the conviction may, in addition to any other penalty, order the person convicted to pay compensation or make restitution. 2004, c. 19, s. 6 (4).

Limitation

(4) No proceeding under subsection (1) shall be commenced more than two years after the facts upon which the proceeding is based first came to the knowledge of the Director. 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (7).

(5) Repealed: 2009, c. 33, Sched. 10, s. 3 (7).

Certificate as evidence

29. A statement as to,

(a) the registration or non-registration of any person;

(b) the filing or non-filing of any document or material required or permitted to be filed with the Registrar;

(c) the time when the facts upon which proceedings are based first came to the knowledge of the Director; or

(d) any other matter pertaining to such registration, non-registration, filing or non-filing,

purporting to be certified by the Director is, without proof of the office or signature of the Director, admissible in evidence as proof, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, of the facts stated therein. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 29.

Fees

29.1 The Minister may by order require the payment of a fee for any of the following matters and may approve the amount of the fee:

1. For processing an application for registration or renewal of registration under this Act.

2. For processing a notice given under subsection 20 (1) or (2) with respect to a commencement or termination of the employment of a collector. 2004, c. 19, s. 6 (5).

Note: On a day to be named by proclamation of the Lieutenant Governor, the Act is amended by adding the following section:



Regulations re financial security

29.2 The Minister may make regulations,

(a) requiring, as a term and condition of registration, that,

(i) a collection agency provide financial security in respect of acts or omissions of the collection agency,

(ii) a collector provide financial security in respect of acts or omissions of the collector;

(b) governing the type, amount, form and terms of the financial security, and the manner of providing it;

(c) prescribing additional obligations relating to the financial security, including a requirement to compensate Ontario for costs incurred by Ontario relating to the financial security;

(d) providing for cancellation of the financial security;

(e) providing for the financial security to continue in force following cancellation of the financial security or termination of a registration under this Act;

(f) governing forfeiture of the financial security and disposition of the proceeds;

(g) requiring and governing termination of bonds provided under this Act as it read immediately before the day Schedule 5 to the Budget Measures Act, 2009 came into force. 2009, c. 18, Sched. 5, s. 1.

See: 2009, c. 18, Sched. 5, ss. 1, 4.



Regulations

30. The Lieutenant Governor in Council may make regulations,

(a) governing applications for registration or renewal of registration and prescribing terms and conditions of registration;

(b) exempting persons or classes of persons from this Act or the regulations or any provisions thereof in addition to those exempted under section 2;

(c) Repealed: 1998, c. 18, Sched. E, s. 53 (1).

(d) prescribing forms for the purposes of this Act and providing for their use;

(e) requiring and governing the maintenance of trust accounts by collection agencies and prescribing the money that shall be held in trust and the terms and conditions thereof;

(f) requiring and governing the books, accounts and records that shall be kept by collection agencies and requiring the accounting and remission of money to creditors in such manner and times as are prescribed, including the disposition of unclaimed money;

(g) requiring collection agencies or any class thereof to be bonded in such form and terms and with such collateral security as are prescribed, and providing for the forfeiture of bonds and the disposition of the proceeds;

Note: On a day to be named by proclamation of the Lieutenant Governor, clause (g) is repealed. See: 2009, c. 18, Sched. 5, ss. 2, 4.



(h) requiring collection agencies to make returns and furnish information to the Registrar;

(i) requiring any information required to be furnished or contained in any form or return to be verified by affidavit;

(j) prescribing further procedures respecting the conduct of matters coming before the Tribunal;

(k) providing for the responsibility for payment of witness fees and expenses in connection with proceedings before the Tribunal and prescribing the amounts thereof;

(k.1) prescribing entities and organizations for the purpose of clause 17 (1) (c);

(l) prescribing prohibited practices and methods for the purpose of section 22;

(m) requiring the Registrar to maintain a public record of certain documents and information, prescribing the documents and information that must be kept in the public record, and governing the public record and access to it;

(n) requiring the Registrar to publish certain documents and information, prescribing the documents and information that must be published, and governing their publication and access to them;

(o) authorizing the Registrar to conduct quality assurance programs in relation to the administration of this Act or the regulations and to use information collected under this Act for the purpose of those programs. R.S.O. 1990, c. C.14, s. 30; 1998, c. 18, Sched. E, s. 53 (1); 2004, c. 19, s. 6 (6).

Note: Regulations made under clause (c), as that clause read immediately before December 18, 1998, continue until the Minister makes an order under section 29.1, as enacted by the Statutes of Ontario, 1998, chapter 18, Schedule E, section 52, that is inconsistent with those regulations. See: 1998, c. 18, Sched. E, s. 53 (2).


Note: The Lieutenant Governor in Council may by regulation revoke regulations made under clause (c), as that clause read immediately before December 18, 1998, if the Minister makes an order under section 29.1, as enacted by the Statutes of Ontario, 1998, chapter 18, Schedule E, section 52, that is inconsistent with those regulations. See: 1998, c. 18, Sched. E, s. 53 (3).


Note: On a day to be named by proclamation of the Lieutenant Governor, the Act is amended by adding the following section:


Transition

Existing bonds

31. (1) Subject to any regulation made under clause 29.2 (g), this Act, as it read immediately before the day Schedule 5 to the Budget Measures Act, 2009 came into force, continues to apply to a collection agency in respect of a bond that was provided before that day. 2009, c. 18, Sched. 5, s. 3.

New financial security

(2) The amendments to this Act made by Schedule 5 to the Budget Measures Act, 2009 apply to a collection agency or collector in respect of financial security that is provided on or after the day on which that Schedule comes into force. 2009, c. 18, Sched. 5, s. 3.

See: 2009, c. 18, Sched. 5, ss. 3, 4.

Monday 23 July 2012

My spouse files Bankruptcy for medical debts

My spouse files Bankruptcy for medical debts

I am from California. My spouse wants to file bankruptcy on medical debts.

My question is that if my spouse file bankruptcy is I am responsible for their medical billing? Does collection agency call me or trace me to get paid my spouse medical bill from me?

Answer: As per State law, either spouse will be liable for each other responsibility. So husband and wife both are responsible for medical care. The first liability goes to the spouse who incurred the debt and the second liability fall on the other spouse. So you are liable for your spouse medical debts, but only after the assets of spouse have been exhausted.As per bankruptcy when only one spouse file bankruptcy and receives discharge, the collector will collect the debt form the non-filing bankruptcy spouse.
   

Thursday 5 July 2012

FEDERAL RULES OF BANKRUPTCY PROCEDURE 9032

Rule 9032. Effect of Amendment of Federal Rules of Civil Procedure
The Federal Rules of Civil Procedure which are incorporated by reference and made applicable by these rules shall be the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure in effect on the effective date of these rules and as thereafter amended, unless otherwise provided by such amendment or by these rules.

Notes
(As amended Apr. 30, 1991, eff. Aug. 1, 1991.)

Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1991 Amendment
This rule is amended to provide flexibility so that the Bankruptcy Rules may provide that subsequent amendments to a Federal Rule of Civil Procedure made applicable by these rules are not effective with regard to Bankruptcy Code cases or proceedings. For example, in view of the anticipated amendments to, and restructuring of, Rule 4 F.R.Civ.P., Rule 7004(g) will prevent such changes from affecting Bankruptcy Code cases until the Advisory Committee on Bankruptcy Rules has an opportunity to consider such amendments and to make appropriate recommendations for incorporating such amendments into the Bankruptcy Rules.

References in Text
The Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, referred to in text, are set out in the Appendix to Title 28, Judiciary and Judicial Procedure.
The effective date of these rules, referred to in text, is Aug. 1, 1983. See Effective Date note set out prec. Rule 1001 of this Appendix.

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Tuesday 3 July 2012

a list of few steps you can take to raise your score at ease

  • Paying down your credit card balances and reducing your overall debt on your credit report is an effective way to raise your credit score quickly. By doing this you lower your total balance owed and also lower the total amount of interest you pay, and in turn increase your credit score at the same time.
  • Make all your payments on time. Delinquencies have a serious impact on your credit score. If you have overdue bills, make plans to get rid of it quickly.
  • Keep a check on your credit limit. To have a good credit score, you should possess about 30% or more of the available balance on your credit cards available for use in emergencies. To increase your score try to keep a gap between what you owe and what you can still use.
  • Don’t close your unused or old credit cards accounts. As a long credit history helps in increasing your score and plays a vital role in calculating your score.
  • Check your credit report occasionally and see if your report is correctly reporting your credit limits for your cards. If you find any errors immediately clear it up, such as incorrect credit limits, late payments, or collection items that aren’t yours.
  • Get a secured credit card. Without a credit history and with a low credit score, a secured card can help you build credit if it reports to the credit bureaus. For this you have to upfront a security deposit of at least a couple hundred dollars, which the card issuer holds as collateral. The bureaus uses your high balance as a proxy for your credit limit, which makes you look that you are maxed out

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Monday 2 July 2012

FEDERAL RULES OF BANKRUPTCY PROCEDURE 9027

Rule 9027. Removal
(a) Notice of Removal.
(1) Where Filed; Form and Content. A notice of removal shall be filed with the clerk for the district and division within which is located the state or federal court where the civil action is pending. The notice shall be signed pursuant to Rule 9011 and contain a short and plain statement of the facts which entitle the party filing the notice to remove, contain a statement that upon removal of the claim or cause of action the proceeding is core or non-core and, if non-core, that the party filing the notice does or does not consent to entry of final orders or judgment by the bankruptcy judge, and be accompanied by a copy of all process and pleadings.
(2) Time for Filing; Civil Action Initiated Before Commencement of the Case Under the Code. If the claim or cause of action in a civil action is pending when a case under the Code is commenced, a notice of removal may be filed only within the longest of (A) 90 days after the order for relief in the case under the Code, (B) 30 days after entry of an order terminating a stay, if the claim or cause of action in a civil action has been stayed under §362 of the Code, or (C) 30 days after a trustee qualifies in a chapter 11 reorganization case but not later than 180 days after the order for relief.
(3) Time for filing; civil action initiated after commencement of the case under the Code. If a claim or cause of action is asserted in another court after the commencement of a case under the Code, a notice of removal may be filed with the clerk only within the shorter of (A) 30 days after receipt, through service or otherwise, of a copy of the initial pleading setting forth the claim or cause of action sought to be removed, or (B) 30 days after receipt of the summons if the initial pleading has been filed with the court but not served with the summons.
(b) Notice. Promptly after filing the notice of removal, the party filing the notice shall serve a copy of it on all parties to the removed claim or cause of action.(c) Filing in Non-Bankruptcy Court. Promptly after filing the notice of removal, the party filing the notice shall file a copy of it with the clerk of the court from which the claim or cause of action is removed. Removal of the claim or cause of action is effected on such filing of a copy of the notice of removal. The parties shall proceed no further in that court unless and until the claim or cause of action is remanded.
(d) Remand. A motion for remand of the removed claim or cause of action shall be governed by Rule 9014 and served on the parties to the removed claim or cause of action.
(e) Procedure After Removal.

(1) After removal of a claim or cause of action to a district court the district court or, if the case under the Code has been referred to a bankruptcy judge of the district, the bankruptcy judge, may issue all necessary orders and process to bring before it all proper parties whether served by process issued by the court from which the claim or cause of action was removed or otherwise.
(2) The district court or, if the case under the Code has been referred to a bankruptcy judge of the district, the bankruptcy judge, may require the party filing the notice of removal to file with the clerk copies of all records and proceedings relating to the claim or cause of action in the court from which the claim or cause of action was removed.
(3) Any party who has filed a pleading in connection with the removed claim or cause of action, other than the party filing the notice of removal, shall file a statement admitting or denying any allegation in the notice of removal that upon removal of the claim or cause of action the proceeding is core or non-core. If the statement alleges that the proceeding is non-core, it shall state that the party does or does not consent to entry of final orders or judgment by the bankruptcy judge. A statement required by this paragraph shall be signed pursuant to Rule 9011 and shall be filed not later than 14 days after the filing of the notice of removal. Any party who files a statement pursuant to this paragraph shall mail a copy to every other party to the removed claim or cause of action.
(f) Process After Removal. If one or more of the defendants has not been served with process, the service has not been perfected prior to removal, or the process served proves to be defective, such process or service may be completed or new process issued pursuant to Part VII of these rules. This subdivision shall not deprive any defendant on whom process is served after removal of the defendant's right to move to remand the case.
(g) Applicability of Part VII. The rules of Part VII apply to a claim or cause of action removed to a district court from a federal or state court and govern procedure after removal. Repleading is not necessary unless the court so orders. In a removed action in which the defendant has not answered, the defendant shall answer or present the other defenses or objections available under the rules of Part VII within 21 days following the receipt through service or otherwise of a copy of the initial pleading setting forth the claim for relief on which the action or proceeding is based, or within 21 days following the service of summons on such initial pleading, or within seven days following the filing of the notice of removal, whichever period is longest.
(h) Record Supplied. When a party is entitled to copies of the records and proceedings in any civil action or proceeding in a federal or a state court, to be used in the removed civil action or proceeding, and the clerk of the federal or state court, on demand accompanied by payment or tender of the lawful fees, fails to deliver certified copies, the court may, on affidavit reciting the facts, direct such record to be supplied by affidavit or otherwise. Thereupon the proceedings, trial and judgment may be had in the court, and all process awarded, as if certified copies had been filed.
(i) Attachment or Sequestration; Securities. When a claim or cause of action is removed to a district court, any attachment or sequestration of property in the court from which the claim or cause of action was removed shall hold the property to answer the final judgment or decree in the same manner as the property would have been held to answer final judgment or decree had it been rendered by the court from which the claim or cause of action was removed. All bonds, undertakings, or security given by either party to the claim or cause of action prior to its removal shall remain valid and effectual notwithstanding such removal. All injunctions issued, orders entered and other proceedings had prior to removal shall remain in full force and effect until dissolved or modified by the court.

Notes

(As amended Mar. 30, 1987, eff. Aug. 1, 1987; Apr. 30, 1991, eff. Aug. 1, 1991; Apr. 29, 2002, eff. Dec. 1, 2002; Mar. 26, 2009, eff. Dec. 1, 2009.)
Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1983

Under 28 U.S.C. §1478(a) “any claim or cause of action in a civil action, other than a proceeding before the United States Tax Court or a civil action by a Government unit to enforce [a] . . . regulatory or police power” may be removed “if the bankruptcy courts have jurisdiction over such claim or cause of action.” This rule specifies how removal is accomplished, the procedure thereafter, and the procedure to request remand of the removed claim or cause of action. If the claim or cause of action which is removed to the bankruptcy court is subject to the automatic stay of §362 of the Code, the litigation may not proceed in the bankruptcy court until relief from the stay is granted.

The subdivisions of this rule conform substantially to 28 U.S.C. §§1446–1450 and Rule 81(a) F.R.Civ.P. pertaining to removal to the district courts.

Subdivision (a)(1) is derived from 28 U.S.C. §1446(a).

Subdivisions (a)(2) and (a)(3) are derived from paragraphs one and two of 28 U.S.C. §1446(b). Timely exercise of the right to remove is as important in bankruptcy cases as in removals from a state court to a district court.
Subdivision (a)(2) governs the situation in which there is litigation pending and a party to the litigation becomes a debtor under the Code. Frequently, removal would be of little utility in such cases because the pending litigation will be stayed by §362(a) on commencement of the case under the Code. As long as the stay remains in effect there is no reason to impose a time limit for removal to the bankruptcy court and, therefore, clause (B) of subdivision (a)(2) provides that a removal application may be filed within 30 days of entry of an order terminating the stay. Parties to stayed litigation will not be required to act immediately on commencement of a case under the Code to protect their right to remove. If the pending litigation is not stayed by §362(a) of the Code, the removal application must ordinarily be filed within 90 days of the order for relief. Clause (C) contains an alternative period for a chapter 11 case. If a trustee is appointed, the removal application may be filed within 30 days of the trustee's qualification, provided that the removal application is filed not more than 180 days after the order for relief.

The removal application must be filed within the longest of the three possible periods. For example, in a chapter 11 case if the 90 day period expires but a trustee is appointed shortly thereafter, the removal application may be filed within 30 days of the trustee's qualification but not later than 180 days after the order for relief. Nevertheless, if the claim or cause of action in the civil action is stayed under §362, the application may be filed after the 180 day period expires, provided the application is filed within 30 days of an order terminating the stay.
Subdivision (a)(3) applies to the situation in which the case under the Code is pending when the removable claim or cause of action is asserted in a civil action initiated in other than the bankruptcy court. The time for filing the application for removal begins to run on receipt of the first pleading containing the removable claim or cause of action. Only litigation not stayed by the Code or by court order may properly be initiated after the case under the Code is commenced. See e.g., §362(a).

Subdivision (b). With one exception, this subdivision is the same as 28 U.S.C. §1446(d). The exemption from the bond requirement is enlarged to include a trustee or debtor in possession. Complete exemption from the bond requirement for removal is appropriate because of the limited resources which may be available at the beginning of a case and the small probability that an action will be improperly removed.

Recovery on the bond is permitted only when the removal was improper. If the removal is proper but the bankruptcy court orders the action remanded on equitable grounds, 28 U.S.C. §1478(b), there is no recovery on the bond.
Subdivisions (c) and (d) are patterned on 28 U.S.C. §1446(e).

Subdivision (e). There is no provision in the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure for seeking remand. The first sentence of this subdivision requires that a request for remand be by motion and that the moving party serve all other parties; however, no hearing is required. In recognition of the intrusion of the removal practice on the state and federal courts from which claims or causes of action are removed, the subdivision directs the bankruptcy court to decide remand motions as soon as practicable. The last sentence of this subdivision is derived from 28 U.S.C. §1446(c)

Subdivisions (f) and (g), with appropriate changes to conform them to the bankruptcy context, are the same as 28 U.S.C. §1447(a) and (b) and 28 U.S.C. §1448, respectively.
Subdivisions (h) and (i) are taken from Rule 81(c) F.R.Civ.P.

Subdivisions (j) and (k) are derived from 28 U.S.C. §1449 and §1450, respectively.

Remand orders of bankruptcy judges are not appealable. 28 U.S.C. §1478(b).

This rule does not deal with the question whether a single plaintiff or defendant may remove a claim or cause of action if there are two or more plaintiffs or defendants. See 28 U.S.C. §1478.

Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1987 Amendment

Section 1452 of title 28, with certain exceptions, provides for removal of claims or causes of action in civil actions pending in state or federal courts when the claim or cause of action is within the jurisdiction conferred by 28 U.S.C. §1334. An order granting or denying a motion for remand is not appealable. 28 U.S.C. §1452(b). Under subdivision (e), as amended, the district court must enter the order on the remand motion; however, the bankruptcy judge conducts the initial hearing on the motion and files a report and recommendation. The parties may file objections. Review of the report and recommendation is pursuant to Rule 9033.

Subdivision (f) has been amended to provide that if there has been a referral pursuant to 28 U.S.C. §157(a) the bankruptcy judge will preside over the removed civil action.

Subdivision (i) has been abrogated consistent with the abrogation of Rule 9015.

Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1991 Amendment
The abrogation of subdivision (b) is consistent with the repeal of 28 U.S.C. §1446(d). The changes substituting the notice of removal for the application for removal conform to the 1988 amendments to 28 U.S.C. §1446.

Rules 7008(a) and 7012(b) were amended in 1987 to require parties to allege in pleadings whether a proceeding is core or non-core and, if non-core, whether the parties consent to the entry of final orders or judgment by the bankruptcy judge. Subdivision (a)(1) is amended and subdivision (f)(3) is added to require parties to a removed claim or cause of action to make the same allegations. The party filing the notice of removal must include the allegation in the notice and the other parties who have filed pleadings must respond to the allegation in a separate statement filed within 10 days after removal. However, if a party to the removed claim or cause of action has not filed a pleading prior to removal, there is no need to file a separate statement under subdivision (f)(3) because the allegation must be included in the responsive pleading filed pursuant to Rule 7012(b).

Subdivision (e), redesignated as subdivision (d), is amended to delete the restriction that limits the role of the bankruptcy court to the filing of a report and recommendation for disposition of a motion for remand under 28 U.S.C. §1452(b). This amendment is consistent with §309(c) of the Judicial Improvements Act of 1990, which amended §1452(b) so that it allows an appeal to the district court of a bankruptcy court's order determining a motion for remand. This subdivision is also amended to clarify that the motion is a contested matter governed by Rule 9014. The words “filed with the clerk” are deleted as unnecessary. See Rules 5005(a) and 9001(3).
Committee Notes on Rules—2002 Amendment
Subdivision (a)(3) is amended to clarify that if a claim or cause of action is initiated after the commencement of a bankruptcy case, the time limits for filing a notice of removal of the claim or cause of action apply whether the case is still pending or has been suspended, dismissed, or closed.
Committee Notes on Rules—2009 Amendment
The rule is amended to implement changes in connection with the amendment to Rule 9006(a) and the manner by which time is computed under the rules. The deadlines in the rule are amended to substitute a deadline that is a multiple of seven days. Throughout the rules, deadlines are amended in the following manner:
• 5-day periods become 7-day periods
• 10-day periods become 14-day periods
• 15-day periods become 14-day periods
• 20-day periods become 21-day periods
• 25-day periods become 28-day periods

Thursday 28 June 2012

FEDERAL RULESS OF BANKRUPTCY PROCEDURE 9019

Rule 9019. Compromise and Arbitration
(a) Compromise. On motion by the trustee and after notice and a hearing, the court may approve a compromise or settlement. Notice shall be given to creditors, the United States trustee, the debtor, and indenture trustees as provided in Rule 2002 and to any other entity as the court may direct.
(b) Authority To Compromise or Settle Controversies Within Classes. After a hearing on such notice as the court may direct, the court may fix a class or classes of controversies and authorize the trustee to compromise or settle controversies within such class or classes without further hearing or notice.



(c) Arbitration. On stipulation of the parties to any controversy affecting the estate the court may authorize the matter to be submitted to final and binding arbitration.

Notes



(As amended Mar. 30, 1987, eff. Aug. 1, 1987; Apr. 30, 1991, eff. Aug. 1, 1991; Apr. 22, 1993, eff. Aug. 1, 1993.)



Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1983



Subdivisions (a) and (c) of this rule are essentially the same as the provisions of former Bankruptcy Rule 919 and subdivision (b) is the same as former Rule 8–514(b), which was applicable to railroad reorganizations. Subdivision (b) permits the court to deal efficiently with a case in which there may be a large number of settlements.



Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1991 Amendment



This rule is amended to enable the United States trustee to object or otherwise be heard in connection with a proposed compromise or settlement and otherwise to monitor the progress of the case.



Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1993 Amendment



Subdivision (a) is amended to conform to the language of §102(1) of the Code. Other amendments are stylistic and make no substantive change.

Wednesday 27 June 2012

FEDERAL RULES OF BANKRUPTCY PROCEDURE 9014

Add caption
Rule 9014. Contested Matters
(a) Motion. In a contested matter not otherwise governed by these rules, relief shall be requested by motion, and reasonable notice and opportunity for hearing shall be afforded the party against whom relief is sought. No response is required under this rule unless the court directs otherwise.

(b) Service. The motion shall be served in the manner provided for service of a summons and complaint by Rule 7004. Any paper served after the motion shall be served in the manner provided by Rule 5(b) F. R. Civ. P.

(c) Application of Part VII Rules. Except as otherwise provided in this rule, and unless the court directs otherwise, the following rules shall apply: 7009, 7017, 7021, 7025, 7026, 7028–7037, 7041, 7042, 7052, 7054–7056, 7064, 7069, and 7071. The following subdivisions of Fed. R. Civ. P. 26, as incorporated by Rule 7026, shall not apply in a contested matter unless the court directs otherwise: 26(a)(1) (mandatory disclosure), 26(a)(2) (disclosures regarding expert testimony) and 26(a)(3) (additional pre-trial disclosure), and 26(f) (mandatory meeting before scheduling conference/discovery plan). An entity that desires to perpetuate testimony may proceed in the same manner as provided in Rule 7027 for the taking of a deposition before an adversary proceeding. The court may at any stage in a particular matter direct that one or more of the other rules in Part VII shall apply. The court shall give the parties notice of any order issued under this paragraph to afford them a reasonable opportunity to comply with the procedures prescribed by the order.

(d) Testimony of Witnesses. Testimony of witnesses with respect to disputed material factual issues shall be taken in the same manner as testimony in an adversary proceeding.

(e) Attendance of Witnesses. The court shall provide procedures that enable parties to ascertain at a reasonable time before any scheduled hearing whether the hearing will be an evidentiary hearing at which witnesses may testify.

Notes

(As amended Mar. 30, 1987, eff. Aug. 1, 1987; Apr. 26, 1999, eff. Dec. 1, 1999; Apr. 29, 2002, eff. Dec. 1, 2002; Apr. 26, 2004, eff. Dec. 1, 2004.)
Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1983
Rules 1017(d), 3020(b)(1), 4001(a), 4003(d), and 6006(a), which govern respectively dismissal or conversion of a case, objections to confirmation of a plan, relief from the automatic stay and the use of cash collateral, avoidance of a lien under §552(f) of the Code, and the assumption or rejection of executory contracts or unexpired leases, specifically provide that litigation under those rules shall be as provided in Rule 9014. This rule also governs litigation in other contested matters.

Whenever there is an actual dispute, other than an adversary proceeding, before the bankruptcy court, the litigation to resolve that dispute is a contested matter. For example, the filing of an objection to a proof of claim, to a claim of exemption, or to a disclosure statement creates a dispute which is a contested matter. Even when an objection is not formally required, there may be a dispute. If a party in interest opposes the amount of compensation sought by a professional, there is a dispute which is a contested matter.

When the rules of Part VII are applicable to a contested matter, reference in the Part VII rules to adversary proceedings is to be read as a reference to a contested matter. See Rule 9002(1).

Committee Notes on Rules—1999 Amendment
This rule is amended to delete Rule 7062 from the list of Part VII rules that automatically apply in a contested matter.

Rule 7062 provides that Rule 62 F.R.Civ.P., which governs stays of proceedings to enforce a judgment, is applicable in adversary proceedings. The provisions of Rule 62, including the ten-day automatic stay of the enforcement of a judgment provided by Rule 62(a) and the stay as a matter of right by posting a supersedeas bond provided in Rule 62(d), are not appropriate for most orders granting or denying motions governed by Rule 9014.

Although Rule 7062 will not apply automatically in contested matters, the amended rule permits the court, in its discretion, to order that Rule 7062 apply in a particular matter, and Rule 8005 gives the court discretion to issue a stay or any other appropriate order during the pendency of an appeal on such terms as will protect the rights of all parties in interest. In addition, amendments to Rules 3020, 4001, 6004, and 6006 automatically stay certain types of orders for a period of ten days, unless the court orders otherwise.
GAP Report on Rule 9014. No changes since publication.
Committee Notes on Rules—2002 Amendment
The list of Part VII rules that are applicable in a contested matter is extended to include Rule 7009 on pleading special matters, and Rule 7017 on real parties in interest, infants and incompetent persons, and capacity. The discovery rules made applicable in adversary proceedings apply in contested matters unless the court directs otherwise.
Subdivision (b) is amended to permit parties to serve papers, other than the original motion, in the manner provided in Rule 5(b) F.R. Civ.P. When the court requires a response to the motion, this amendment will permit service of the response in the same manner as an answer is served in an adversary proceeding.

Subdivision (d) is added to clarify that if the motion cannot be decided without resolving a disputed material issue of fact, an evidentiary hearing must be held at which testimony of witnesses is taken in the same manner as testimony is taken in an adversary proceeding or at a trial in a district court civil case. Rule 43(a), rather than Rule 43(e), F.R. Civ.P. would govern the evidentiary hearing on the factual dispute. Under Rule 9017, the Federal Rules of Evidence also apply in a contested matter. Nothing in the rule prohibits a court from resolving any matter that is submitted on affidavits by agreement of the parties.
Subdivision (e). Local procedures for hearings and other court appearances in a contested matter vary from district to district. In some bankruptcy courts, an evidentiary hearing at which witnesses may testify usually is held at the first court appearance in the contested matter. In other courts, it is customary for the court to delay the evidentiary hearing on disputed factual issues until some time after the initial hearing date. In order to avoid unnecessary expense and inconvenience, it is important for attorneys to know whether they should bring witnesses to a court appearance. The purpose of the final sentence of this rule is to require that the court provide a mechanism that will enable attorneys to know at a reasonable time before a scheduled hearing whether it will be necessary for witnesses to appear in court on that particular date.
Other amendments to this rule are stylistic.
The Advisory Committee made two changes to subdivision (d) after considering the comments received addressing the proposed rule. First, the word “material” is inserted to make explicit that which was implied in the published version of the proposed rule. Second, the reference to F.R.Civ.P. 43(a) was removed. The purpose of proposed subdivision (d) was to recognize that testimony should be taken in the same manner in both contested matters and adversary proceedings. The revision to the published rule states this more directly.
The Committee Note was amended to reflect the changes made in the text of the rule.
Committee Notes on Rules—2004 Amendment

The rule is amended to provide that the mandatory disclosure requirements of Fed. R. Civ. P. 26, as incorporated by Rule 7026, do not apply in contested matters. The typically short time between the commencement and resolution of most contested matters makes the mandatory disclosure provisions of Rule 26 ineffective. Nevertheless, the court may by local rule or by order in a particular case provide that these provisions of the rule apply in a contested matter.

Tuesday 26 June 2012

federal rules of bankruptcy procedure 9008


Rule 9008. Service or Notice by Publication

Whenever these rules require or authorize service or notice by publication, the court shall, to the extent not otherwise specified in these rules, determine the form and manner thereof, including the newspaper or other medium to be used and the number of publications.